Christian theology thread for Christians - Deus homo factus est naturam erante, mundus renovatus est a Christo regnante

Constantinople IV and V are considered Ecumenical by some.
So, you're saying some Orthodox literally say: "We don't consider them Ecumenical. It doesn't matter what YOU consider Ecumenical":smug: ?
When accusations reveal themselves to be confessions...
Arius was exiled for refusing to accept it.
A heretic rejected an Ecumenical Council?
I wonder what that means when your own Churches reject your own Ecumenical Councils...
 
The Council of Nicaea was at best superfluous. You heard it here first, guys.
Surely you know that Nicaea was followed by a period in which the heretical position was more popular than the position agreed on at the Council? It certainly didn't have widespread support in the aftermath, despite the decisions made there being correct.
 
Surely you know that Nicaea was followed by a period in which the heretical position was more popular than the position agreed on at the Council? It certainly didn't have widespread support in the aftermath, despite the decisions made there being correct.
Was the heretical position more popular in the West or in the East?

Christ is the rock
'And Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”'

Jesus addresses Peter almost 10 times, He was very clearly talking about what He will build upon him, and the authority He will give him.
 
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'And Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”'

Jesus addresses Peter almost 10 times, He was very clearly talking about what He will build upon him, and the authority He will give him.
Alright, sure. Peter had a role in leading the early Church. The "bind/loose" thing is also commissioned to the rest of the disciples in Matthew 18:18. I'll be honest and say that I don't know what those keys are exactly for. But what I do know is that the Bible doesn't talk about those keys being passed down to anybody else.
 
Alright, sure. Peter had a role in leading the early Church. The "bind/loose" thing is also commissioned to the rest of the disciples in Matthew 18:18. I'll be honest and say that I don't know what those keys are exactly for. But what I do know is that the Bible doesn't talk about those keys being passed down to anybody else.
This was covered a few pages back, but it doesn't hurt to repeat it.

The apostles did indeed all receive the authority to "bind and loose," but only St. Peter received the "keys of the Kingdom of Heaven," which is a direct reference to a specific office from the Old Testament.

In Isaiah 22:20-22, we see how authority worked in the Kingdom of David when King Hezekiah appoints Eliakim to the office of 'master of the palace': "I will place on his shoulder the key of the house of David; what he opens no one can shut, and what he shuts no one can open" which sounds a lot like what Jesus just told St. Peter.

The master of the palace's role was to govern the king's household on his behalf. So, he was the king's chief steward, which was the highest authority under the king himself. He managed all of the kingdom's affairs and acted with the king's own authority.

This was a permanent office that the kingdom needed to function properly. When Eliakim died, someone else would be appointed to that office to serve the next king. Except now there is no next King, Jesus is our Eternal King, and only St. Peter holds the keys to that office, he is the one who was entrusted to govern the house in the King's name.

So, if the Church needed such an office for unity and governance while the apostles were still alive, then it would certainly need one after they were gone. The keys had to be passed down, otherwise the office would have died with St. Peter and Jesus' claim that "the powers of death shall not prevail against it" would have been a lie.

And while it's not explicitly written in the Bible, the Early Christians certainly acted like the keys were passed down. I posted multiple quotes from them a few pages back.
 
Christ is the rock
He is the rock of the church, but it's not entirely clear that this passage is as simple as that.
Was the heretical position more popular in the West or in the East?
A distinction without much importance given the state of the church at the time. Nicaea was an almost entirely eastern council because the church was largely based in the east, because the empire was largely eastern. The biggest proponents and opponents of Arianism were largely eastern. None of this is relevant to the point he was making - large meetings that don't have some serious disagreement from someone, somewhere probably aren't saying anything of import. That's true of life in general.
'And Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”'

Jesus addresses Peter almost 10 times, He was very clearly talking about what He will build upon him, and the authority He will give him.
1. Jesus uses a different word - a feminine one at that - for 'this rock' than he does for Peter
2. It is not clear that he refers to Peter as being the rock, as opposed to what Peter has said
3. Immediately after this he calls Peter Satan in response to what Peter says
4. As I said on the previous page, the Greek reads better literally as "anything you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose shall have been loosed in heaven," which suggests that God is the binder, and whatever Peter is doing is simply in service of what God has ordained
5. The keys are very clearly connected with binding and loosing - they prevent or permit entry. Therefore the apostles are given the same authority as Peter in ch. 18
6. What does Peter demonstrate here that would be connected with binding or loosing people for the kingdom? His proclamation of Jesus as the Messiah, the Son of God. Believing that message is what enables people to enter the kingdom. Rejecting it is what keeps them out. Therefore, proclaiming the gospel is using the keys, which we see Peter doing in Acts alongside and as the unofficial leader of his fellow apostles, who do likewise.
 
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In 1 Corinthians 15:5 Paul refers to Peter as Cephas.
This does not in any way respond to what I said. He uses petra for 'this rock' and petros for 'Peter' in Matthew 16:18. That he would have said Cephas in Aramaic is not in question. God's Word is what it is, the NT is written in Koine Greek and the divinely-inspired writer has chosen to use different words for 'Peter' and 'this rock' in the verse in question.
 
This does not in any way respond to what I said. He uses petra for 'this rock' and petros for 'Peter' in Matthew 16:18. That he would have said Cephas in Aramaic is not in question. God's Word is what it is, the NT is written in Koine Greek and the divinely-inspired writer has chosen to use different words for 'Peter' and 'this rock' in the verse in question.
Sorry but I am having a very hard time taking this level of straw grasping seriously.

Do you actually think Saint Matthew, a Galilean, wrote in Greek or are you asserting that the translator is divinely-inspired too?
 
Sorry but I am having a very hard time taking this level of straw grasping seriously.

Do you actually think Saint Matthew, a Galilean, wrote in Greek or are you asserting that the translator is divinely-inspired too?
You think a literate tax collector for the Roman Empire would not know how to write in the most basic form of ancient Greek? It is well established that all the books of the NT were written in Greek.
 
You think a literate tax collector for the Roman Empire would not know how to write in the most basic form of ancient Greek? It is well established that all the books of the NT were written in Greek.
False. The "originally written in Greek" argument started in the 16th century. If we look at contemporary writings from the early days of the Church they do not support those claims at all.

Papias, bishop of Hieropolis in Asia Minor, wrote:
“Matthew compiled the sayings [of the Lord] in the Aramaic language, and everyone translated them as well as he could” (Explanation of the Sayings of the Lord [cited by Eusebius in History of the Church 3:39]).


Fifty years later around 180AD Irenaeus of Lyons wrote:
Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching in Rome and laying the foundation of the Church. After their departure, Mark, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter. Luke also, the companion of Paul, recorded in a book the Gospel preached by him. Afterwards John, the disciple of the Lord, who also had leaned upon his breast, did himself publish a Gospel during his residence at Ephesus in Asia. (Against Heresies 3: 1:1)


Sometime after 244 the Scripture scholar Origen wrote:
“Among the four Gospels, which are the only indisputable ones in the Church of God under heaven, I have learned by tradition that the first was written by Matthew, who was once a publican, but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ, and it was prepared for the converts from Judaism and published in the Hebrew language” (Commentaries on Matthew [cited by Eusebius in History of the Church 6:25]).

And Eusebius concluded in 323AD:
“Matthew had begun by preaching to the Hebrews, and when he made up his mind to go to others too, he committed his own Gospel to writing in his native tongue [Aramaic], so that for those with whom he was no longer present the gap left by his departure was filled by what he wrote” (History of the Church 3:24 [inter 300-325]).
 
Papias, bishop of Hieropolis in Asia Minor, wrote:
People can't even agree as to whether Papias meant Aramaic or Hebrew (not there was a huge written difference between the two). In either case, it was taken up by the later father under the assumption that Matthew, as the most 'Jewish' of the gospels, would not have been written in Greek. But the statement given by Eusebius is not as clear as you (and many who take up the argument) wish it to be. Not only is it ambiguous as to which language is being referred to, what you have given as 'language' could equally mean 'manner', 'compiled' can also mean 'arranged' and in either case that could mean a whole range of things, and 'translated' could also be 'interpreted'. With such a small fragment, quoted centuries later, there is a paucity of context with which to understand what is actually being said.

Moreover, even if we grant that every part of the sentence is in favour of there being an original Matthew in Hebrew/Aramaic, there is absolutely no record of one being seen or used. By the time Jerome was translating into Latin, he was basing it off the Greek. Furthermore, Matthew 5 and 6 contain Aramaic words, which would be a strange choice for a translation from an Aramaic or Hebrew original, but would make far more sense if the Greek is the original and the author wished to preserve the Aramaic sense that Jesus spoke in from time-to-time, while giving the translation in Greek to make it clear. There are many other indicators towards a Greek original Matthew along these lines.

The only reason one would raise a fuss about this is if it threatens a deeply-held theological position, like, say, apostolic succession. Thankfully, my faith in the risen Jesus that leads to salvation is not dependent on such a thing.
 
The biggest proponents and opponents of Arianism were largely eastern.
Thank you.
Which should leave you asking why the writer would make the distinction.
Because, that's how Greek, or any gendered language works, especially with declensions. Petros = masculine, petra = feminine. The author couldn't call St Peter a feminine name, nor could he call a rock a masculine noun. Don't bring up a language you don't understand to make a point you don't understand.
 
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