So in other words, assuming that Zack really was literally Hitler, then there's two scenarios: one, AP consults Waid for information on Meyer, and Waid informs them that Meyer is literally Hitler; or two, Waid contacts AP on his own accord to inform them that he is literally Hitler. In the states that follow this 2d Restatements thing, both of these cases are not TI, but in other states, the latter case can be considered TI as far as Meyer is concerned. Am I understanding this correctly?
If true, and given that Meyer is demonstrably not literally Hitler, that seems like two nails in the "truth defense" coffin.