- Joined
- May 10, 2014
I think there's some degree of validity in the sociological definition...in the context of institutionalized oppression. It doesn't apply to individual bigotry, though, and it's total bullshit that people claim it does. (And yeah, "reverse racism" is a stupid concept.)
The way I see it (and I apologize if any of this is unclear or worded poorly), there's institutionalized racism and there's individual racism. An English-speaking white person in the US wouldn't really experience institutionalized racism (though this wasn't always true--for instance, there was a LOT of bigotry against the Irish in the 19th century, up until the early 20th century if I recall correctly), but they could still be the victim of individual racism. In other words, they wouldn't have to deal with the way cards are kind of stacked against non-whites in this country, but if someone told them "white people are scum" or what have you, it'd still be racism, just not at the institutional level.
Wow I am not wording this right but I hope that makes sense.
The way I see it (and I apologize if any of this is unclear or worded poorly), there's institutionalized racism and there's individual racism. An English-speaking white person in the US wouldn't really experience institutionalized racism (though this wasn't always true--for instance, there was a LOT of bigotry against the Irish in the 19th century, up until the early 20th century if I recall correctly), but they could still be the victim of individual racism. In other words, they wouldn't have to deal with the way cards are kind of stacked against non-whites in this country, but if someone told them "white people are scum" or what have you, it'd still be racism, just not at the institutional level.
Wow I am not wording this right but I hope that makes sense.