It doesn't. Here is the verse again...
"He answered, “Moshe allowed you to divorce your wives because your hearts are so hardened. But this is not how it was at the beginning" (Matthew 19:
Breaking it down into 3 parts shows that The Messiah is reinforcing The Torah...
Part A: He answered, “Moshe allowed you...
Part B: to divorce your wives because your hearts are so hardened...
Part C: But this is not how it was at the beginning
Part A: Moshe allowed it because he was the acting Judge. In The Torah, a woman or man could petition the judges for a divorce GET (Deut. 16:1

Part B: The men's hardness of heart (in not following The Torah) is why Moses released the women
Part C: But the ideal is one man and one woman for life (Gen. 2:24)
And moving on to the next verse (Mathew 19:9):
"Now what I say to you is that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery!”"
Part A: Now what I say to you...
Part B: is that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of
pornea, and marries another woman commits adultery
Part A: Now The Messiah is the acting Judge
Part B: Unless a matter of
pornea that causes a divorce, a man is committing adultery by making another marriage Covenant with a second woman
Now we can argue over the meaning of "pornea"
My view is that pornea = defilement of idolatry
not "sexual immorality". I can explain my reasoning, if needed.
G4202 - πορνεία porneía, por-ni'-ah; from ; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry:—fornication.
www.blueletterbible.org
Yes, I'm done.
It matters because you were attacking me with words. Are we done now?