- Joined
- May 25, 2020
Yes to both, but also not just a technicality. Committing Fraud is Separate from Being Convicted of Fraud. And claiming "There is no fraud" isn't dealing with an individual, its dealing with an asserted fact. You don't get presumption of innocence here.
The only reason we HAVE presumption of innocence was because we, as a people, decided that forcing someone to prove their own innocence was wrong.
You don't GET to have that when making claims.
Operating on that assumption, then, one must conclude that no elections were ever shown to be secure in US history and there exists no evidence otherwise.
Or at the more generous interpretation, every election which did not run a recount or an audit on itself is inherently neither secure nor insecure and neither valid nor invalid.