- Joined
- Feb 23, 2019
This is something I'm curious about, because I've seen people stand on one side of the fence or the other, but as (almost) always, seems like bias greatly determines one's ethical stance after considering if it can/will affect them personally, so here you'll have to reason your perspective, and tell if you'd apply the consequences to yourself if you were the victim.
Should be noted that this topic has NSFW talk and scenarios, so hopefully it doesn't devolve into childish remarks.
I'm going to present several hypotheticals, and you'll have to decide if the victim (in this case the man/soon to be father) suffered from any type of sexual abuse (or is a victim of malicious acts that are sexual in nature), and if they should have the right to relinquish their liability as a parent, as a result of this.
I also need to mention that I believe child support is supposedly thought as means to protect neither the male nor the female (in the case of a heterosexual couple), but to protect the child. However real life turns out to be filled with nuances, and what's seen as fair in one situation may not be in another.
- Scenario 1:
An unmarried adult couple of a man and a woman agree on having a sexual relationship, and to not have kids. They use common, relatively safe contraception methods (such as condoms) but for some reason it ends up failing (if you want, this hypothetical can also consider it with the male having gone through a vasectomy, but a failed one, in which his body inadvertently reversed/healed the procedure). The woman ends up being pregnant, but despite her initial desire on not having kids, she changes her mind and decides to have it.
Should the soon to be father be legally able to release himself from any liability in regards to the child (such as paying for child support, etc)? If this was you (don't care if you're man or woman, you can imagine yourself in such scenario), would you apply your reasoning to yourself?
- Scenario 2:
Same type of couple decides to have sex, but the woman lies (or is extremely negligent about) claiming that she's on birth control (or incapable of getting pregnant that time). She ends up getting pregnant, but the male does not want to be the father and was initially under the assumption that he surely wasn't going to be (because of what he was told).
Should he be allowed to not be liable for this (child)? Was he a victim of any sort of abuse? If this was you, would you take the responsability?
- Scenario 3:
Same initial couple as the first scenario in which they have the sexual relationship & the agreement on not having kids, but the woman succeeds to willingly sabotage the contraceptive method (e.g: by breaking it), unbeknownst to the male and gets pregnant. You can also assume the sexual act didn't involve penetration at all, but the woman, without the consent or knowledge of the male, decided to impregnate herself with the "result" of the previous sexual act.
Apply the same question as the previous example.
Should be noted that this topic has NSFW talk and scenarios, so hopefully it doesn't devolve into childish remarks.
I'm going to present several hypotheticals, and you'll have to decide if the victim (in this case the man/soon to be father) suffered from any type of sexual abuse (or is a victim of malicious acts that are sexual in nature), and if they should have the right to relinquish their liability as a parent, as a result of this.
I also need to mention that I believe child support is supposedly thought as means to protect neither the male nor the female (in the case of a heterosexual couple), but to protect the child. However real life turns out to be filled with nuances, and what's seen as fair in one situation may not be in another.
- Scenario 1:
An unmarried adult couple of a man and a woman agree on having a sexual relationship, and to not have kids. They use common, relatively safe contraception methods (such as condoms) but for some reason it ends up failing (if you want, this hypothetical can also consider it with the male having gone through a vasectomy, but a failed one, in which his body inadvertently reversed/healed the procedure). The woman ends up being pregnant, but despite her initial desire on not having kids, she changes her mind and decides to have it.
Should the soon to be father be legally able to release himself from any liability in regards to the child (such as paying for child support, etc)? If this was you (don't care if you're man or woman, you can imagine yourself in such scenario), would you apply your reasoning to yourself?
- Scenario 2:
Same type of couple decides to have sex, but the woman lies (or is extremely negligent about) claiming that she's on birth control (or incapable of getting pregnant that time). She ends up getting pregnant, but the male does not want to be the father and was initially under the assumption that he surely wasn't going to be (because of what he was told).
Should he be allowed to not be liable for this (child)? Was he a victim of any sort of abuse? If this was you, would you take the responsability?
- Scenario 3:
Same initial couple as the first scenario in which they have the sexual relationship & the agreement on not having kids, but the woman succeeds to willingly sabotage the contraceptive method (e.g: by breaking it), unbeknownst to the male and gets pregnant. You can also assume the sexual act didn't involve penetration at all, but the woman, without the consent or knowledge of the male, decided to impregnate herself with the "result" of the previous sexual act.
Apply the same question as the previous example.