- Joined
- Jun 14, 2018
If "moral judgments are true or false only relative to some particular standpoint (for instance, that of a culture or a historical period) and that no standpoint is uniquely privileged over all others" and/or "we can never understand any culture except our own, so we cannot make moral judgments about other cultures", then how can anyone meaningfully speak of human rights as a universal concept?
The notion of universal human rights necessarily assumes the existence of a universal code of ethics, of certain universal moral and/or ethical truths or standards that must be followed at all times. Therefore, those guilty of violating them would be considered morally and/or ethically wrong.
So, how does this square up with the moral relativism and isolationism that many (including many so-called "academics" and "intellectuals") subscribe to in the first world?
The notion of universal human rights necessarily assumes the existence of a universal code of ethics, of certain universal moral and/or ethical truths or standards that must be followed at all times. Therefore, those guilty of violating them would be considered morally and/or ethically wrong.
So, how does this square up with the moral relativism and isolationism that many (including many so-called "academics" and "intellectuals") subscribe to in the first world?