- Joined
- Jun 9, 2013
This could easily devolve into "reee dumb people on social media" but I'm more interested in the logical consistency of the concept. It comes from Karl Popper's "The Open Society and Its Enemies" and the gist of it is "Tolerating intolerant people will lead to the destruction of tolerance therefore it is essential to be intolerant towards the intolerant". Now Popper doesn't support silencing the intolerant and suggests rational debate and public opinion keeping them in check, unlike some who quote him, but I'm confused on where the paradox is. I only see a contradiction if you assume "We tolerate EVERYONE" as opposed to a more accurate "We tolerate anyone who does not force their beliefs onto others".
Am I missing something here or is Popper's paradox not an actual paradox?
Am I missing something here or is Popper's paradox not an actual paradox?