Aren't some infinities bigger than others?
The number of primes are infinite.
But so are the number of even numbers.
But how about the number of numbers divisible by three?
They're both an infinite set of numbers.
But one's smallest. And primes get increasingly sparse.
Mersenne primes are increasingly difficult to find, as an example. The number of Mersenne primes is also infinite. Or is it? There's no proof one way or the other. There should be. But are they?
Prove it or blow me.
Also if you are a mathematician, kill yourself, but not by normal suicide, just devote your life to the Collatz Conjecture, lmao, you'll wish you were dead.
Some infinities are indeed bigger than others. If you want to have a mind-blowing afternoon, look up ordinal numbers (ordinals).
Here's an easy example:
- The set of natural numbers is infinite (since you can always add 1) but is a subset of the set of integers.
- The set of integers is a subset of the set of real numbers.
- The set of real numbers is a subset of the set of complex numbers.
The fact the set of natural numbers is infinite and a subset of the other sets I listed is proof enough each set is infinite, by definition of a subset. It is also trivial to show some of the sets contain elements some other sets don't (e.g. -1 is an integer but not a natural number), hence the
sub in subset.
Therefore, this clearly demonstrates some infinite sets are "bigger" than others.
QED
If you want a proof of infinite primes, I can do that too.
A quick note on your even numbers example:
@N Space is correct about cardinality, though countable infinities can seem a bit abstract, so I'll frame it a different way. If you consider the set of integers and the set of even numbers, you can define a one-to-one (bijective) mapping between the two sets (
f(x)=2x
). The one-to-one bit is key here;
f(-2)
can only equal -4 as it is defined, and every value of
x
maps to a distinct value. Another thing to pay attention to is the fact this mapping can be undone. In math terms, we say these two sets have the same cardinality since they meet this condition, but that means nothing to most people. Instead, consider that you can't create such a one-to-one mapping between the set of real numbers and the set of integers.
I'll leave you with something to think about: What can we do with this knowledge that some infinite sets can be mapped to other infinite sets using a typical one-to-one function?