That's a little disingenuous though, don't you think?
Again, as an Affirmer, I do not doubt that the Nazis deliberately targeted Jews for murder. And as an advocate for civil liberties, I think the details about the Holocaust are ultimately moot, as even if the Nazis killed absolutely no-one, the Nazis would still be guilty of using coercive force in order to deprive millions of Europeans of their liberty, dignity, and property. Authoritarianism doesn't become bad when someone dies, and become good if everyone survives (albeit in slavery and poverty). Authoritarianism is evil, full stop.
However, your link provides scans of the actual document, which you can read for yourself: Prutzmann does not say "we executed 363,211 Jews". He says that they executed 363,211 Jewish "Bandenhelfer und Bandenverdächtige" - i.e. partisans, partisan collaborators, and suspected collaborators. While this may certainly be a sneaky and cynical attempt to conceal their "true motivations" (why would the SS feel the need to do that, if this was a top secret report for Hitler's eyes only?), it might also mean that they shot 300,000+ Jewish people suspected to be partisan collaborators.
The more serious problem is that per even the worst possible interpretation, these Jews were shot, in Russian territory, at or near the front lines. These Jews were not put into trains, sent to internment camps, and gassed to death - which is the aspect of the Holocaust narrative that most Revisionists (and all Deniers) dispute. The fate of Soviet resistance fighters, while certainly horrible, and worthy of remembrance, has no actual bearing on the fate of Western and Central European Jews sent to internment camps. One might as well attempt to bolster Affirmer arguments by producing documents that "prove Japanese nationals died in American internment camps", for all the relevance Putzmann's report has on the actual debate.
The location where they were killed is given, that is around Western Ukraine, nowhere near the frontlines
Yes this is a report on anti-partisan operations, and they provide figures for non-Jews and Jews killed as part of these bandit clearing activities.
14,000 non Jews killed compared to 360,000 Jews for this roughly 3 month period in mid to late 1942, more than a year after initial invasion. So 25x more Jews were executed than non-Jews.
So one could assume, that if the Jews were half the population and Nazis were treating them fairly and executing only those who were actually "bandit helpers", Jews were 25x more likely to be engaged in this activity than non-Jews.
But Jews made up less than 5% of the population (and some revisionists would say there were almost no Jews in occupied territory at this time--they had all fled), so there was roughly 20x more Non-Jews in 'Russia' at this time. Therefore, this document would suggest Jews were hundreds of times more likely to be "bandit helpers" than non-Jews.
Perhaps an argument could be made here that this was truly the case, the Jews hated the Germans so much they were willing to do anything to harm them, even Jewish children and the elderly were a threat, but any acute observer of the period knows that the Jews had largely been ghettoized and isolated from the general population since the beginning of 1941--and that the ghettos were finally being closed down at around this period, and according to revisionists they were being transferred to internment camps. How much assistance to "bandits", mostly living in the woods ,could these people really provide?
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The use of Nazi coded language and euphemism to describe their crimes is a subject I am particularly interested in. This dates back to the top-secret T-4 program where the euphemism 'disinfected' was used to notate murder
Another famous document mentions 70,000 people 'disinfected' by 1941
So coded language is not something controversial at all and even admitted by the most 'prestigious' of deniers. Here's Carlo Mattogno in his Einsatzgruppen book, by far the longest and most exhaustive discussion of this subject by a revisionist
and again from the now withdrawn Holocaust Controversies response,
Just like use of the term 'disinfection', Holocaust related coded language was employed in top secret documents and even when the 'code' part was obvious, see Strauch's 'resettlement' pits
http://holocaustcontroversies.blogspot.com/2011/10/pits-at-resettlement-site.html
I believe there was a euphemistic, perhaps even ironic aspect to the use of this language, but this is a part of the holocaust that will likely forever be shrouded in mystery.
Hope I clarified some things for you, thanks for the questions.
@Rapechu
I love this magical thinking where Germany can just materialize millions of tons of lumber and teleport it to Auschwitz.
I don't think lumber was extensively used at Auchwitz, but I'm sure they did get lumber deliveries by train. If you're wondering where the records of these deliveries are, can I ask about the deliveries of lumber or plans to build the resettlement camps for the Jews in the east, or does this only go one way?
The Reinhardt camps are an interesting case because they clearly existed, yet there is almost no documentation concerning their construction or deliveries to them (one of the exceptions is large mechanical diggers were sent there), though there is evidence they employed hundreds of people, and judging by air photos were fairly large facilities.
The mystery of this particular lack of evidence is revealed in Globocnik's letter to Himmler summing up the Reinhardt "evacuation" and "property seizure"
In addition to the camps being razed and "surveillance" farms built over them: " The equipment which was provided for this action from seized goods, which however are to be considered as Reich property, have been removed completely. For reasons of surveillance in each camp a small farm was created which is occupied by an expert.
An income must regularly be paid to him so that he can maintain the small farm."
Globocnik's letter also makes clear documentation regarding these camps was going to be destroyed: "In accordance with an agreement with the Reich Ministry of Finance, this preliminary examination is final and the vouchers and data will be destroyed in accordance with Security regulations, cutting out the Reich Accounting Office."
and: "There is one additional factor to be added to the total accounting of "Reinhardt" which is that the vouchers dealing with it must be destroyed as soon as possible after the data have already been destroyed by all other works concerned in this matter. "
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So to Rapechu, it is clear (and evidenced) why Germans would cover up a top secret extermination program, but far less clear why they would do the same with the resettlement of millions of Jews in Russia, that in 1942 the entire world started hearing was a group supposedly being mass murdered
What happened to the hundreds of thousands of documents pertaining to resettlement that one would expect to exist?
Or are you guys the only ones who get to ask questions? This doesn't seem too fair.
Well first of all, there is a complete lack of any sort of German documentation ordering an industrialized genocide of slavs. That should be the first clue. We do know from events like the Polish Action of the NKVD (where Polish civilians were massacred) and Katyn Massacre that the SOVIETS were intentionally genociding Poles, and blaming it on the Germans. This forms the foundation for any ideas of an intentional German genocide of Slavs. The Germans uncovered the massacres during Operation Barbarossa and informed neutral investigators from the red cross (which is the appropriate thing to do when you uncover a genocide). The soviets, predictably, responded with "no... it was you!" and the Brits backed them up well until the collapse of the USSR when the whole scam was leaked.
As for the intentions of Germans, it is not a secret, Hitler publicly outlined it in Mein Kampf and public speeches, with no genocidal tones at all. Imperialistic tones? Yes, but that was the norm for the day. Look at any map of the world in the 30s and see how many imperial acquisitions France and Britain had. Hitler had always intended to liberate Russia from the communists. His moral views were that Germany had millions of people and they were not food-independent. This led to mass starvations whenever a certain island went to war with them and blockaded food exports. If he could make eastern territories protectorates of Germany then Germany would no longer be at the mercy of global superpowers (and these territories would be better off than they were under communism). So ironically, Hitler was trying to prevent a repeat of the situation of mass starvation during war time which he is accused of causing.
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@Lemmingwise
You're right there is no order of mass murder, but there is ample documentation showing the German planned on creating an ethnically pure German state beyond Moscow.
They state quite clearly that tens of millions would have to be relocated (to Siberia? was that an area capable of sustaining such populations?) and Poland, Ukraine, Russia, would no longer exist. Many millions would necessarily die here, and certainly there would be much resistance which would lead to brutal countermeasures on the part of the Germans.
see
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Warsaw_Uprising#Destruction_of_the_city
A general population reduction was seen as something favorable to creation of an ethnically pure German Empire.
So we may have some insight, for example, into why Himmler thought the death of millions of Soviet POWs in the first years of the war was "not regrettable"
At the time, we did not value the mass of humanity as we value it today: as raw material, as labor. The fact that prisoners died of exhaustion and hunger in tens and hundreds of thousands is by no means regrettable from the standpoint of lost generations but is deplorable now for reasons of lost labor.
I detailed a few documents here that Nazi apologists don't like very much