Then after 15-25-years you're going to own a house. You're going own an asset you can sell or leave to your kids, you could rent out a room of if you need money. The renter needs to continue to pay rent after those 25-years. Even if housing totally tanks, you can always live in your house because it has intrinsic value as a thing you can live in. If the stock market tanks and your ETFs decrease in value, you cannot eat them or live in them. They have no intrinsic value. They are abstract and do not physically exist.
Maybe I get you wrong. For me intrinsic value is cashflow. What does the company get in form of cashflow itself and what do I get out of it in form of dividends. Yes that fluctuates, but does also increase in the long-term. You save the typical capital cost of the rent, since you own the house. I pay a higher rent, but would have capital in the stock market, which generate cashflow.
We could now go into an autistic number game of what would perform better. Housing or the performance of companies. I think it will be roughly the same when savings are done properly.
When it comes to the abstract thing. Again, not that I get you wrong. But those companies of which I would have ownership do exist in reality. They have real tangible assets. Diversified across countries, branches, business models, sizes, currencies, you name it.
Just one question. Would you recommend owning a house without properly insuring it against fire and so on? After all what is an insurance contract? Merely an abstract form of rights and obligations for the parties involved.
I understand what you're trying to say, but it is incorrect and flies in the face of 100+-years of data. In every housing crash that has happened for the last century in the western world, housing has recovered long-term. Shelter is a basic need, so there is an automatic floor for how far rent and house prices can drop. Rent always always goes up long term. It is not possible for it to collapse without a precipitous population decline. Likewise, housing is not going to collapse and not recover unless society collapses and does not recover and at that point the money does not mean anything anyway.
The narrative you're spouting has been fed to you by billionaires, corporations and government entities who are trying to turn you into a neo-surf.
You have to explain to me one thing though. These very same governments usually uphold and finance programs to encourage people to get house ownership, right? I mean here in Germany alone we have:
- Bausparprämie
- KFW Kredite (cheaper credits)
- Wohnkindergeld
- Wohn-Riester
At this is just at the top of my head. There are state funded programs as well. And that goes so far that there are dedicated websites that show you which program you could take.
And I think it is true as well for the United States. Wasn't president Bush a large advocate for home ownership?
The same applies to a good chunk of companies. Since home ownership means at the beginning: Consumption.
Of course they are voice that proclaim what you say. But they seem to be the rather impotent power in those institutions since they seem to have a hard time to even remove the most basic encouragements for home ownership.
Also I am just curious since housing returns are always such a hassle to get accurate long term results. What is your data for those? I usually stick with the paper with the somewhat silly name of "The Rate of Return on Everything".
Sorry to go back to this, but it's just such a head scratcher. This article assumes an increase of 2% a year in rent which is asinine.
Rent in the US has grown an average of 8.86% per year since 1980. There are a couple years in there where it grows 2% or less, but they are far from the norm. I only skimmed the article, but as far as I can see they provide no justification for the 2% rent inflation number.
When adjusting for inflation median rent in Ohio rose at 2.5%, it was close to 3% when unadjusted. Why are they using 2% in an article written by the Bank of Cleveland?
Ya, ya it's fine. I think they just went back further in time by the logic that a tracking record of 100 + years is a better estimate as a tracking record of 40 years. The article is also from 2011, but way of the calculation is still correct. But please do not get me wrong. I explicitly mentioned that people use the numbers they think are likely.