- Joined
- Feb 19, 2020
It's possible. Maybe even likely. I'm not sure how property (do pets fall under property?) is divvied up when they're engaged. But it doesn't make sense to me that he would claim expenses for something that isn't his. But then again, this is Dave were talking about.
And just because I feel like it's not said enough, big thanks to @actually and everyone else trying to keep track of the tism storm.
It makes sense to me. It'd be like if the wife owned a car outright (fully paid off) prior to the marriage but after the marriage the husband drove it and put gas in it every week. He wouldn't claim the cost of the vehicle as a personal asset but would claim the ongoing expense of driving it.