Yeah it is. But it's stance as "latino" is... Well defined by how you define latino. The original term applied to the roman empire and their successors (those being the spanish and portuguese empire. An no the eastern roman empire didn't count because the pope didn't like them and he literally got to decide what the term meant. Yeah people talk about newspeak now... Feudalism bitches, it literally worked that way), if you use it that way, most of africa, parts of india, almost all of oceania outside of austrialia itself and large parts of north america count as latino. But of course that term stopped being used that way, mostly because spain and portugal colonized most of the fucking globe. And then sold it to the british. Or lost it to revolutions. Sometimes the french got involved point is that stopped being useful. So it started being applied only to spanish colonies with enough spanish rule over time to be considered that and not just incidental lost colonies, in which case equatorial guinea is part of the term, and so is the philipines and morocco. And hilariously enough Brasil wouldn't be latino by this definition. Which of course leads us to today's term, which only includes spain and south and central america. Why the term turned into that I don't know, but it did.
