The Trial of Derek Chauvin - Judgement(?) Day(?) has arrived!

Outcome?

  • Guilty of Murder

    Votes: 75 7.6%
  • Not Guilty of Murder (2nd/3rd), Guilty of Manslaughter

    Votes: 397 40.0%
  • Full Acquittal

    Votes: 221 22.3%
  • Mistrial

    Votes: 299 30.1%

  • Total voters
    992
  • Poll closed .
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But isn't homicide also potentially inaccurate? That's assuming that the knee on GF was the cause of his death which is highly debatable. Seems irresponsible to write an autopsy report while making those huge assumptions.
No, it was a homicide. Any death which is not A: of natural causes, B: Not deliberately self-inflicted, and C: Has a clear second party involved is homicide. All ODs for instance, since the person had to buy the drugs off someone else.
 
When the BLM riots started near me, I bought a bunch of AR lowers. When Biden got elected, I replaced those lowers for 80% lowers. Now that the riots are about to kick off again and Biden is following through with his handler's gun policies, I'm getting into 3D printing. The best thing about shit getting bad is it allows room for creative growth.
Why haven't you gotten the fuck out of there? There are plenty of areas where riots weren't an issue.
 
I'm not an expert on this shit so idk much on autopsies, but I think Gehenna's comment does more justice. Homicide is just a tricky vague term and on an autopsy report really doesn't mean much.
Medical Examiners' and Coroners' Handbook on Death

The National Association of Medical Examiners makes the following distinctions between manners of death (9):

Natural—‘‘due solely or nearly totally to disease and/or the aging pro cess.’’

Accident—‘‘there is little or no evidence that the injury or poisoning oc curred with intent to harm or cause death. In essence, the fatal outcome was unintentional.’’

Suicide—‘‘results from an injury or poisoning as a result of an intentional, self-inflicted act committed to do self-harm or cause the death of one’s self.’’

Homicide—‘‘occurs when death results from...’’ an injury or poisoning or from ‘‘...a volitional act committed by another person to cause fear, harm, or death. Intent to cause death is a common element but is not required for classification as homicide.’’

Could not be determined—‘‘used when the information pointing to one manner of death is no more compelling than one or more other competing manners of death when all available information is considered.’’

Pending investigation—used when determination of manner depends on further information.
 
Wikipedia is handling things well.
View attachment 2064972
Every time I stumble accross Wikipedia users blundering their way through "accurately" "reporting" current political events "without bias" I understand more why it can't be used as a source in high school essays. It's just random people writing down whatever is most PC (although most fringe topics not to do with social-political events are still decent).
 
Medical Examiners' and Coroners' Handbook on Death

Page 19
This is why I provided the criteria of homicide. This isn't accidental, as there is clear fault at play (An accidental death would be "The ladder broke at the same time and I dropped a hammer on his head") and is a case where literally nobody could be said to be at fault. Its clearly not suicide. And CoD is determinable. That leaves Homicide.
 
Can somebody give me a TL;DR of today's events?

I need to build my case for the gay relationship between Daddy Derek and Baby Monkey.
 
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Niggas keep saying two autopsies "concluded" homicide. Do they actually? Why hasn't that been brought up in court yet?
The official Hennepin County autopsy is actually considered a homicide by all technicalities, but it is in no way a legal statement (ie the means used to determine guilt, are being used to determine guilt). This means that Chauvin's involvement likely provoked the death, but if it was reasonable (subduing after resisting arrest, which only would kill with drugs) then Chauvin wouldn't be guilty.
The other autopsy was contracted by Floyd's family, which dubious for obvious reasons. They also didn't have access to Floyd's tissue samples.
TW: WaPo https://archive.md/GlAR0

In "reliable source" Wikipedialand, it's canon that multiple independent expert sources, including two real autopsies, confirmed that Floyd was killed by a knee to the neck. The debate is over, the science is settled, mountains of evidence, etc etc.

WaPo said:
But when Chauvin’s trial for his alleged role in Floyd’s death begins, much of the argument will center instead on the autopsy details, most specifically whether fentanyl and underlying health conditions — not the police officer’s actions — stopped Floyd’s heart and lungs.

Seven experts in toxicology, cardiology and illegal drug use consulted by The Washington Post largely disagreed with that idea, most of them strenuously. All but one said the autopsy findings and other court documents, coupled with the well-known chain of events that evening, made death by a fentanyl overdose unlikely to impossible. (One expert, Craig Beavers, chair of the American College of Cardiology’s cardiovascular team section, said he did not have enough information about all the circumstances to form a final conclusion.)
The defense strategy rings of earlier, successful attempts to blame drugs in police violence against African Americans. In 1992, when four Los Angeles police officers were acquitted of the videotaped beating of motorist Rodney King, one testified of fears that King was on PCP, a drug the officer contended gave King “hulk-like strength.” No PCP was found in King’s system.
Is there a name for this fallacy? Because I see it in every lib article about anything race-related. They won't come out and say that the defense's arguments are informed by race because that would be too obviously stupid, but they're eager to assert that it "rings of" or "recalls" of some earlier thing and make insinuations.

Note: Rodney King later drowned to death while high on PCP (among other substances). Rings of earlier attempts to blame drugs for pool violence against African Americans, I guess.
 
Every time I stumble accross Wikipedia users blundering their way through "accurately" "reporting" current political events "without bias" I understand more why it can't be used as a source in high school essays. It's just random people writing down whatever is most PC (although most fringe topics not to do with social-political events are still decent).
I remember finding a debate thread from 2009 about a page on "The link between Socialism and the Nazi party" and you could watch the progression over the years until it ended with the entire "Yes there is a link" group being banned, as dozens of new accounts joined. Eventually, one dude went on a schizo rant about how every new user who commented pro link was just the same banned old users. Over like, years.

What was originally an entire page with a timeline, documenting both Hitler's and Mussolini's progressions, and two sides of historians waying in has been replaced with a single paragraph saying "lol are you kidding? Hitler killed plenty of socialists ahahahaha"

If you need any more proof, how about Count Dankula contacting wikipedia asking if they can remove "far right" from his name, because he doesn't identify as that, and being told he's not a reliable source, but some no name Scottish rag is. Not that either them are, or the scottish in general, but you get it.
 
Where is everyone getting the reddit comments from? I dont want to spend more time than I have to on that site trying to find the salt mines.
 
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Was there an explanation why the judge shut the hearing down early today?
 
When the BLM riots started near me, I bought a bunch of AR lowers. When Biden got elected, I replaced those lowers for 80% lowers. Now that the riots are about to kick off again and Biden is following through with his handler's gun policies, I'm getting into 3D printing. The best thing about shit getting bad is it allows room for creative growth.
The thing they're going do next after they ban guns is get rid of those they don't like.

The other problem with banning guns is it leaves only molotovs and other non defense weaponry for those who don't wanna get gulaged.

It also leaves dissents with one option and it would be suicide attacks.
 
Is there a name for this fallacy?
If I'm getting you right, its a bit of equivocation (comparing two unlike things as if they're alike) and maybe poisoning the well (pre-emptive discrediting of future arguments by asserting a connection/character flaw when it's unrelated to the actual argument).

As far as using words that strongly "imply" a thing when you really mean to assert it authoritatively: the technical term is "being a weaselly faggot."
 
The thing they're going do next after they ban guns is get rid of those they don't like.

The other problem with banning guns is it leaves only molotovs and other non defense weaponry for those who don't wanna get gulaged.

It also leaves dissents with one option and it would be suicide attacks.
I don't want to delve too off topic, but I think there is 0 chance of a gun ban. It's simply unnecessary.

After all the shit that happened in 2020 and there was no militia rising up. That will never happen. They just need to keep people fat and watching netflix, that's the ultimate subversion. The kind of subversion people willing submit to.
 
I don't want to delve too off topic, but I think there is 0 chance of a gun ban. It's simply unnecessary.

After all the shit that happened in 2020 and there was no militia rising up. That will never happen. They just need to keep people fat and watching netflix, that's the ultimate subversion. The kind of subversion people willing submit to.
I doubt people will rise up but I truly believe they will try to get rid of firearm ownership.


The problem is too many people are like gold fish. Someone I know just bought a house. In the city. Yet they don't realize the 'youll own nothing and be happy" agenda is coming. Nor are they aware of the riots coming as result of chavin s trial.

Oblivious, oblivious, oblivious.
 
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